Guernica4000
10-27-2005, 01:12 PM
If you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is
Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/heart.gif 3 /images/graemlins/club.gif is there a mathematical difference when calling or betting than if the flop was
Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 3 /images/graemlins/heart.gif ?
I realize that in the first case if the 8 /images/graemlins/heart.gif or K /images/graemlins/heart.gif hits you have the absolute nuts, but does this make a difference when calling for Pot odds?
My guess is that the first hand is probably better when it comes to implied odds but the same when you talk about pot odds since the number of outs is the same.
Although running some test I see that when you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/heart.gif 3 /images/graemlins/club.gif the only hands you are behind (mathematically) are QQ, 99, and 33 but with a flop of Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 3 /images/graemlins/heart.gif a hand like A /images/graemlins/heart.gif K /images/graemlins/heart.gif also has you dominated.
So I guess to simplify the question is:
Do you need different pot odds to call if you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/heart.gif 3 /images/graemlins/club.gif than you do if you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 3 :heart?
Thanks,
Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/heart.gif 3 /images/graemlins/club.gif is there a mathematical difference when calling or betting than if the flop was
Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 3 /images/graemlins/heart.gif ?
I realize that in the first case if the 8 /images/graemlins/heart.gif or K /images/graemlins/heart.gif hits you have the absolute nuts, but does this make a difference when calling for Pot odds?
My guess is that the first hand is probably better when it comes to implied odds but the same when you talk about pot odds since the number of outs is the same.
Although running some test I see that when you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/heart.gif 3 /images/graemlins/club.gif the only hands you are behind (mathematically) are QQ, 99, and 33 but with a flop of Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 3 /images/graemlins/heart.gif a hand like A /images/graemlins/heart.gif K /images/graemlins/heart.gif also has you dominated.
So I guess to simplify the question is:
Do you need different pot odds to call if you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/heart.gif 3 /images/graemlins/club.gif than you do if you hold J /images/graemlins/heart.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif and the flop is Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 3 :heart?
Thanks,