Magician
06-06-2003, 06:40 PM
PokerStars NL Hold 'Em $10 tournament (over 200 participants) - Blinds 15/30Seat #4 is the button
Seat 1: 4680
Seat 2: 1210
Seat 3: 2485
Seat 4: 1050
Seat 5: Magician 2005
Seat 6: 2480
Seat 7: 1675
Seat 8: 1065
Seat 9: 2675
Magician: posts small blind 15
Nice Pair!!: posts big blind 30
*** HOLE CARDS ***
Dealt to Magician [6d 6h]
7: folds
8: folds
9: calls 30
1: folds
2: raises 90 to 120
3: calls 120
4: folds
Magician: calls 105
6: folds
9: calls 90
*** FLOP *** [4h Ac 3c]
Magician: checks
9: checks
2: bets 300
3: folds
Magician: raises 1585 to 1885 and is all-in
9: calls 1885
2: calls 790 and is all-in
*** TURN *** [4h Ac 3c] [7c]
*** RIVER *** [4h Ac 3c 7c] [3d]
*** SHOW DOWN ***
Magician: shows [6d 6h] (two pair, Sixes and Threes)
9: shows [5c Qc] (a flush, Ace high)
9: collected 1590 from side pot
2: shows [Ah Jd] (two pair, Aces and Threes)
9: collected 3780 from main pot
My reasoning: I went all-in to knock 9 (who I had correctly put on a draw) out of it. I expected 9 to fold, so in my mind my only liability was the 790 that 2 had left. So even if 2 calls and I go on to lose I thought I would still have about 1,100 left. In addition, I thought the viciousness of my check-raise would induce a fold from 2 who I had (again, correctly) put on Ace + a decent to good kicker. I was hoping to represent two pair. And of course there was some possibility that 2 didn't even have an ace, but something like say JJ or TT, and the Ace on the board would have worked as a scare card in my favor. And if he didn't even have a pair (KQ suited, semi-bluff on his part?) then my pocket 6's might stand.
Was there any merit to what I did, i.e. might it have worked against a different opponent or if he had a different hand worth raising 4 BB pre-flop and then betting out 300 on the flop with?
Seat 1: 4680
Seat 2: 1210
Seat 3: 2485
Seat 4: 1050
Seat 5: Magician 2005
Seat 6: 2480
Seat 7: 1675
Seat 8: 1065
Seat 9: 2675
Magician: posts small blind 15
Nice Pair!!: posts big blind 30
*** HOLE CARDS ***
Dealt to Magician [6d 6h]
7: folds
8: folds
9: calls 30
1: folds
2: raises 90 to 120
3: calls 120
4: folds
Magician: calls 105
6: folds
9: calls 90
*** FLOP *** [4h Ac 3c]
Magician: checks
9: checks
2: bets 300
3: folds
Magician: raises 1585 to 1885 and is all-in
9: calls 1885
2: calls 790 and is all-in
*** TURN *** [4h Ac 3c] [7c]
*** RIVER *** [4h Ac 3c 7c] [3d]
*** SHOW DOWN ***
Magician: shows [6d 6h] (two pair, Sixes and Threes)
9: shows [5c Qc] (a flush, Ace high)
9: collected 1590 from side pot
2: shows [Ah Jd] (two pair, Aces and Threes)
9: collected 3780 from main pot
My reasoning: I went all-in to knock 9 (who I had correctly put on a draw) out of it. I expected 9 to fold, so in my mind my only liability was the 790 that 2 had left. So even if 2 calls and I go on to lose I thought I would still have about 1,100 left. In addition, I thought the viciousness of my check-raise would induce a fold from 2 who I had (again, correctly) put on Ace + a decent to good kicker. I was hoping to represent two pair. And of course there was some possibility that 2 didn't even have an ace, but something like say JJ or TT, and the Ace on the board would have worked as a scare card in my favor. And if he didn't even have a pair (KQ suited, semi-bluff on his part?) then my pocket 6's might stand.
Was there any merit to what I did, i.e. might it have worked against a different opponent or if he had a different hand worth raising 4 BB pre-flop and then betting out 300 on the flop with?