DJ712
06-04-2003, 05:38 PM
I am reading Theory of Poker right now and I have a question about Chapter Four as it relates to Limit Hold 'Em.
If I'm playing 10/20 Texas Hold 'Em and the Blinds are $5 & $10 and the future bet is $20 on the final two rounds of betting, does that mean I take the $10 blind and divide it by $20 (future bet) which would give us 50%, which would be considered a very large ante if I am not mistaken?
If that is true, than I should play more hands (If the ante is greater than 15%, play more hands).
However I think I have misinterpreted this section as it relates to blinds/antes and would like to be corrected if I am wrong.
If I'm playing 10/20 Texas Hold 'Em and the Blinds are $5 & $10 and the future bet is $20 on the final two rounds of betting, does that mean I take the $10 blind and divide it by $20 (future bet) which would give us 50%, which would be considered a very large ante if I am not mistaken?
If that is true, than I should play more hands (If the ante is greater than 15%, play more hands).
However I think I have misinterpreted this section as it relates to blinds/antes and would like to be corrected if I am wrong.