bearly
10-18-2005, 12:24 AM
hi, i'm a reader of this particular forum, but not a poster. too complex. but i finally have a question that has piqued my interest enough to try. i'm interested in how you would calculate the 'odds-against' a series of events. in this case the poker hands would have the following characteristics: they would be pre-flop 'all-in' pushes, they would be against only one player, you would be greater than a 60/40 favorite to win. my questions are: since even 1 beat is against the 'odds', how do you calculate the odds against a string of these beats? also, at what point does the string become long enough to be a real 'abberation' (i don't think you guys use that word but it's the best i could do) thanks in advance. i really admire the math brain power on this forum.........b