Question about Rakeback

For a site like Fortune Poker, lets say that hypothetically to make it easy RB is 25%. Their bonuses clears at $1 per $5 raked. So you would be recieving rakeback on the other $4 correct since the $1 is counting against MGR? Therefore .25*4=1 so it would effectively be $2 for every $5 raked? Sorry this question is simple I just was looking for a little clarification. Thanks.

[absentx]

Just think of it like this, you lose 25% of whatever your bonus was, in your rakeback.

So, if your MGR was $1000 and you had no bonus, your rakeback would be $250

Now, if your MGR was $1000 and you had a $100 bonus, your rakeback would be $225, see you were charged 25% of your bonus which in this case was $25 bucks.

I know that doesnt break it down into your "by hand" thinking but its the best I can do.

In general I don't think you can get rakeback for hands that are used to clear bonuses.

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In general I don't think you can get rakeback for hands that are used to clear bonuses.

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I thought there were some "stackable" deals where you could do both - anyone know where to do this ?

Absolute allows both at once

[smb394]

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In general I don't think you can get rakeback for hands that are used to clear bonuses.

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Not necessarily. For most sites (e.g Eurobet), the bonuses you clear in a given month are deducted from your MGR (which is the number that your % rakeback is based on).

Therefore, say you have 25% rakeback and decide to clear a $100 bonus. You get the $100 for clearing the bonus, and are left with whatever your MGR would be -$100. So you will lose only $25 in rakeback due to clearing this bonus, but a net of $75.

Someone FYP if I'm wrong.