10-01-2005, 02:15 AM
I answered this question a few times this week; I think people are curious enough about it to justify putting it in.
Odds of m OOTM in a row
OOTM = 1 - ITM
Odds of OOTM all of one specific set of m SnGs = OOTM^m
Now, in a set of N games where N > m, the number of sets of m is N + 1 - m (verify this for yourself with numbers). Thus, the odds of having at least one streak of m OOTM in a row in a set of N games is just:
1 - (1-OOTM^m)^(N+1-m).
So, with 40% ROI for 1000 SnGs, the odds of one streak of 15 OOTMs is 37%. For 2k, it's 99.99%.
A rough approximation for eyeballing this is:
N * OOTM^m. This (much) rougher formula gives 47% for the odds of a streak of 15 OOTM in 1k SnGs and 94% for 2k. (Note that it gives 141% on 3k. That's why the other formula's better.)
Odds of m OOTM in a row
OOTM = 1 - ITM
Odds of OOTM all of one specific set of m SnGs = OOTM^m
Now, in a set of N games where N > m, the number of sets of m is N + 1 - m (verify this for yourself with numbers). Thus, the odds of having at least one streak of m OOTM in a row in a set of N games is just:
1 - (1-OOTM^m)^(N+1-m).
So, with 40% ROI for 1000 SnGs, the odds of one streak of 15 OOTMs is 37%. For 2k, it's 99.99%.
A rough approximation for eyeballing this is:
N * OOTM^m. This (much) rougher formula gives 47% for the odds of a streak of 15 OOTM in 1k SnGs and 94% for 2k. (Note that it gives 141% on 3k. That's why the other formula's better.)