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View Full Version : How close to correct?


bobbyi
09-25-2005, 03:15 AM
Suppose that you for some reason were forced to agree to the following rule: you are never permitted to fold on the river if you go to the river heads up and you have ace high or better to show down. (Obviously by "ace high" I mean that you have an ace in your hand that plays as a high card (possibly as a kicker with pair(s)/ trips on board), not that there is an ace on the flop and you have an unpaired 72.)

How much would this restriction cost you? You could still play in whatever (shorthanded) game you want, do whatever else you want to do (including adjusting other aspects of your game to minimize the damage from having to follow this rule), but you just would have to pay off some rivers that you usually wouldn't. Could you still be a winning player? How much? How close to correct would this policy be?

Drontier
09-25-2005, 03:48 AM
well this REALLY DEPENDS on if other players know this. If they know you have to follow this rule, I think it hurts a lot, but a 2 bb winning aplyer will still be a winning player. If they don't know, I think this barely hurts.