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vmacosta
09-20-2005, 02:49 AM
Say you are sitting in a live 15/30 game in No. Cal (loose/aggressive is the norm). Lets also say that there are 4-5 limpers none of whom have tight PF standards and you are in SB and decide to raise with AA-66, any suited B'way, AK-AJo, and KQo. Everyone (including BB) calls but one player (not the first limper) now reraises. If the cap is 4 bets, with which hands should you cap? If the cap is 5 bets, does this change? It is fair to assume that you will not lose anyone except occasionally the BB.

thesharpie
09-20-2005, 02:55 AM
Some of those I wouldn't raise the first time. I'd cap AKo, AJs+, KQs, 99, wondering if I should open up abit with the suited broadways.

Bodhi
09-20-2005, 03:21 AM
I say you re-decide what to raise in the SB.

vmacosta
09-20-2005, 03:44 AM
[ QUOTE ]
I say you re-decide what to raise in the SB.

[/ QUOTE ]
I think raising all of these hands in the SB is fine if you play well postflop...there were 4-5 limpers who aren't tight yet normally have aggressive tendencies, remember? Anyway, that wasn't the question. If you are having trouble imagining the scenario, lets just say your friend gave you 20 bucks on the condition that you autoraised from SB and now one of the late position limpers has reraised...with what range would you 4-bet (and does the number of bets for a cap make a difference)?