09-14-2005, 05:24 PM
First post. Hopefully I can get the formatting down.
<font color="red">Hero</font> (70.5)
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> (30)
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> (119.30)
The table is pretty loose. I just stacked someone after re-raising PF with AAds two hands prior to the hand in question. Lately, I have been experimenting with short-stacked buy-ins and TAG play, though I'm pretty sure my table image at this point was LAG.
My question involves the following hand at $50-PLO table.
Hero is MP+1 with: A/images/graemlins/club.gif A/images/graemlins/diamond.gif Q/images/graemlins/diamond.gif 4/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
MP limps (.50), <font color="red">Hero</font> limps (.50), CO limps (.50), B <font color="green">Villian-1</font> limps (.50), SB <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> checks, BB checks.
Flop: A/images/graemlins/heart.gif J/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> bets (1), MP folds, MP+1 calls (1), <font color="red">Hero</font> calls (1), CO calls (1), <font color="green">Villian-1</font> raises (4), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> raises (6), MP+1 folds, <font color="red">Hero</font> folds, CO folds, <font color="green">Villian-1</font> raises (23), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> calls (20).
Turn: A/images/graemlins/heart.gif J/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif 7/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> checks, <font color="green">Villian-1</font> bets (2.5 AI), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> calls (2.5)
River: A/images/graemlins/heart.gif J/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif 7/images/graemlins/diamond.gif 7/images/graemlins/heart.gif
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> shows: K/images/graemlins/heart.gif 4/images/graemlins/spade.gif 4/images/graemlins/heart.gif 10/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> shows: 5/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/heart.gif K/images/graemlins/diamond.gif 10/images/graemlins/heart.gif
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> wins 32, <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> wins 32.
That each of the villians had K-10 was not surprising from the flop action. The fact that I would have won the hand doesn't bother me, as I am sure that I made the correct fold. My question is whether or not I should have called the initial weak bet (1). Given the flop, I was working under the assumption that Villian 2 had K-10 with likely back door flush outs. So, I called the weak bet figuring that I was getting the correct odds to look for a board pair on the turn. Obviously, once there was a raise and a re-raise it became an auto-fold.
Should I have called the initial weak flop bet OOP, or should this have been an autofold at that point already?
<font color="red">Hero</font> (70.5)
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> (30)
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> (119.30)
The table is pretty loose. I just stacked someone after re-raising PF with AAds two hands prior to the hand in question. Lately, I have been experimenting with short-stacked buy-ins and TAG play, though I'm pretty sure my table image at this point was LAG.
My question involves the following hand at $50-PLO table.
Hero is MP+1 with: A/images/graemlins/club.gif A/images/graemlins/diamond.gif Q/images/graemlins/diamond.gif 4/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
MP limps (.50), <font color="red">Hero</font> limps (.50), CO limps (.50), B <font color="green">Villian-1</font> limps (.50), SB <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> checks, BB checks.
Flop: A/images/graemlins/heart.gif J/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> bets (1), MP folds, MP+1 calls (1), <font color="red">Hero</font> calls (1), CO calls (1), <font color="green">Villian-1</font> raises (4), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> raises (6), MP+1 folds, <font color="red">Hero</font> folds, CO folds, <font color="green">Villian-1</font> raises (23), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> calls (20).
Turn: A/images/graemlins/heart.gif J/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif 7/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> checks, <font color="green">Villian-1</font> bets (2.5 AI), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> calls (2.5)
River: A/images/graemlins/heart.gif J/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif 7/images/graemlins/diamond.gif 7/images/graemlins/heart.gif
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> shows: K/images/graemlins/heart.gif 4/images/graemlins/spade.gif 4/images/graemlins/heart.gif 10/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> shows: 5/images/graemlins/club.gif Q/images/graemlins/heart.gif K/images/graemlins/diamond.gif 10/images/graemlins/heart.gif
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> wins 32, <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> wins 32.
That each of the villians had K-10 was not surprising from the flop action. The fact that I would have won the hand doesn't bother me, as I am sure that I made the correct fold. My question is whether or not I should have called the initial weak bet (1). Given the flop, I was working under the assumption that Villian 2 had K-10 with likely back door flush outs. So, I called the weak bet figuring that I was getting the correct odds to look for a board pair on the turn. Obviously, once there was a raise and a re-raise it became an auto-fold.
Should I have called the initial weak flop bet OOP, or should this have been an autofold at that point already?