KSakuraba
09-14-2005, 01:15 PM
I remember once reading that it is possible that a wormhole could appear right in front of you and take you to another dimension...(a bit unprobable though.../images/graemlins/crazy.gif). So lets say that the probablity of a wormhole appearing in front of me at moment t is p. So the probability would be the same p at the moment of t+1 second,right? If we split the 1 second into N parts,we would have same probability at the moments of t,t+(1/N),t+(2/N),...,t+((N-1)/N),t+1? Now when the N goes to infinite, we have infinite amount of samples, which each have the same probability of the worm hole appearing.
So would'nt 1-((1-p)^N) go to 1 when p<1 and N goes to infinite?? I know im lost here big time(largely because im not in a wormhole /images/graemlins/wink.gif) but can't find where...anyone who can help me?
So would'nt 1-((1-p)^N) go to 1 when p<1 and N goes to infinite?? I know im lost here big time(largely because im not in a wormhole /images/graemlins/wink.gif) but can't find where...anyone who can help me?