Wingnut
05-02-2003, 10:03 AM
Home game, pretty loose-passive. Opponent is fairly new to hold'em and will call down with a lot of second-best hands, but generally raise with strong hands.
4 limpers + SB to me in the BB with red AA. I raise, all call.
Flop is 2c4c7c. I bet, folded to opponent who calls, rest fold.
Turn Qs. I bet, opponent calls.
River Jh. I bet opponent calls and turns over Kc6c for the flopped 2nd nut flush.
So I know there was nothing I really could've done differently, but thinking about FTOP, I was wondering which one of us made money and which one lost? I feel that I made money because I didn't ever have to call a raise, but I also lost money because I kept betting into a hand that I was dead to on the turn. Opponent lost money by not ever raising, but gained money because I kept betting into her with a far inferior hand.
So who made the bigger mistake, theoretically?
4 limpers + SB to me in the BB with red AA. I raise, all call.
Flop is 2c4c7c. I bet, folded to opponent who calls, rest fold.
Turn Qs. I bet, opponent calls.
River Jh. I bet opponent calls and turns over Kc6c for the flopped 2nd nut flush.
So I know there was nothing I really could've done differently, but thinking about FTOP, I was wondering which one of us made money and which one lost? I feel that I made money because I didn't ever have to call a raise, but I also lost money because I kept betting into a hand that I was dead to on the turn. Opponent lost money by not ever raising, but gained money because I kept betting into her with a far inferior hand.
So who made the bigger mistake, theoretically?