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09-08-2005, 06:27 PM
I was reading Mason MalMuths Poker Essays volume I. Written before the poker boom, he has a few essays on why he thinks NL holdem cash games will never generate the traffic that limit holdem will. He makes some valid points and some other points that I disagree with. There is one point however, that I don't know what he even means. Perhaps someone can decode:

"One possible solution would be to limit the amount of money that any player is allowed to put on the table. However, this would cause another set of problems that I don't want to get into because winning players would required to go south with the money. It would also change the nature of No Limit Holdem"

his point was that the structure of a NL cash game, when the money is deep, dictates the best strategy is to play ultra tight with a tiny stack. He said one solution to this is introduced a cap buy in, but then he wrote the paragraph above which I don't understand. Since I don't remember a time before NL cash games had a capped buy in, can anyone help me what the above paragraph means?

(as an aside, since there are now so many truly bad players playing NL, I think it now helps you to give action against certain players if it ensures getting action later. Sure tight play against equal skill level is probably still proper. But if you are at a table with people who are all equally skilled, its a bad game choice anyway)

Logik
09-08-2005, 07:23 PM
I think it means that you can only have x amount of chips on the table, period. Like in a $1,000 capped buy-in $5/$10 NL game you can only have, say, $2,000 in chips in front of you, the rest you take off the table.

09-08-2005, 08:45 PM
right but what does he mean by the phrase "make the good players go south with the money" I guess my question is why is a capped buy in bad for a good player?

boondockst
09-08-2005, 09:00 PM
Because a bad player can always have him covered? The psychological blow of getting stacked? I have no idea either.

edtost
09-09-2005, 08:45 AM
[ QUOTE ]
right but what does he mean by the phrase "make the good players go south with the money" I guess my question is why is a capped buy in bad for a good player?

[/ QUOTE ]

because he can't buy to cover when the fish wins a huge pot.

boondockst
09-09-2005, 05:49 PM
Yes he can...the fish has to cash down to meet the table max....everyone can always cover everyone

09-10-2005, 05:02 PM
reasonable answer, but I usually dont care when fish have me covered...I usually welcome that. if good aggressive players who have position on me have me covered then I find a new game or attack the fish

edtost
09-10-2005, 05:09 PM
look at it from the perspective of the fish - if you have twice the buyin, and are the worst player at the table, is it better for new players to be able to sit down with enough to cover you, or with the buyin, assuming they are also better than you?