mulebennett
09-03-2005, 11:51 AM
Last night I was in a $2,500 players club freeroll on Party, and it was getting to the extreme bubble (32-33 remain, 30 paid). I was on the very short stack and was going to see two rounds before I was officially blinded dead. At the other table this happened and everybody--including me--flipped out on this guy because it smelled like chip dumping. But then I got to thinking, what is the actual definition of chip dumping? Does there have to be a relationship between dumper and dumpee for it to be considered actual dumping?
Here's the hand to the best of my memory.
Blinds are 4000/8000.
10 handed, 8 fold around to small blind.
Small blind has stack of 4414 after posting small blind. He goes all in for a total of 8414 chips. It's 414 chips for BB to call (BB's stack is ~75,000 at this point) and win 16,000 chips.
414 chips to call into 16000 pot. By my math (16k/414), he's getting more than 38.5 to 1 to call. He says "3 7 offsuit, sorry guys, wish I could call." and proceeds to fold. I was angry because this greatly diminished my chances of winning, and there are no two cards in the deck nearly close to a 38.5 to 1 underdog preflop. Does this sound like chip dumping to you?
Here's the hand to the best of my memory.
Blinds are 4000/8000.
10 handed, 8 fold around to small blind.
Small blind has stack of 4414 after posting small blind. He goes all in for a total of 8414 chips. It's 414 chips for BB to call (BB's stack is ~75,000 at this point) and win 16,000 chips.
414 chips to call into 16000 pot. By my math (16k/414), he's getting more than 38.5 to 1 to call. He says "3 7 offsuit, sorry guys, wish I could call." and proceeds to fold. I was angry because this greatly diminished my chances of winning, and there are no two cards in the deck nearly close to a 38.5 to 1 underdog preflop. Does this sound like chip dumping to you?