View Full Version : Math Question
PokerFink
08-30-2005, 01:51 AM
This is a fairly simple math question that I should probably be able to figure out myself, but I'm going to ask to make sure I do it right.
I hold a small pair. My single opponent is all-in, and I am getting exactly 2:1 on my call. I feel that sometimes it will be a race, and sometimes I will be against a bigger pair. I will never be ahead of smaller pair.
To make it easy, let's assume I'm either exactly 50% to win or exactly 20% to win depending on what villian holds.
What % of the time must this situation be a 50/50 race for the call to be +EV?
[ QUOTE ]
I hold a small pair. My single opponent is all-in, and I am getting exactly 2:1 on my call. I feel that sometimes it will be a race, and sometimes I will be against a bigger pair. I will never be ahead of smaller pair.
To make it easy, let's assume I'm either exactly 50% to win or exactly 20% to win depending on what villian holds
[/ QUOTE ]
I always get confused by the ratio odds notations stuff. If 1:2 means that, if you win you net your bet, then you need the outcome to be 50/50 all of the time to win. If it means that you net twice your bet if you win, then you you need to have a 50/50 chance 10/18 (slightly more than half) the time for the EV to be zero.
UATrewqaz
08-30-2005, 02:01 AM
If my math is right you need to be in a race situation at least 45% of the time to break even. Anything above .45 should be +EV.
Here is my calculation
When it is a race your EV calculation is
(.5) * 2 + (.5) * -1 = .5
When you are behind a bigger pair the EV calculation is
(.2) * 2 + (.8) * -1 = -.4
Thus the +EV of the race situation is greater than the -EV situation of the smaller pair situation.
.5 ( .45) = .4 (.55)
Thus a .45/.55 ratio is the break even point.
If you opponent has 2 overcards more than 45% of the time you can label this a +EV situation, anything less is a -EV situation.
PokerFink
08-30-2005, 02:20 AM
(.5) * 2 + (.5) * -1 = .5 is...
(My equity) * (My pot odds) + (His Equity) * (-1)
So if I were getting 3:1 instead of 2:1 it would be
(.5) * 3 + (.5) * -1 = 1
Is this right?
PokerFink
08-30-2005, 02:21 AM
[ QUOTE ]
I always get confused by the ratio odds notations stuff.
[/ QUOTE ]
I was getting 2:1. That means there was 2 dollars in the pot (including villian's bet) and I had to call 1 dollar. When I win, I win 2 dollars. When I lose, I lose 1 dollar.
UATrewqaz
08-30-2005, 02:33 PM
Correct,
when getting N:1 you can see how you a lower % of equity is needed to get +EV, because your loss is constant but the bigger the N the bigger the profit, so if you were getting 99:1 on a bet you'd really only need a 1% chance of winning to just break even
.01 * 99 + .99 * -1 = 0
DavidC
08-31-2005, 10:41 AM
Edit: Ahem... It's late (early)... This post was made under the assumption that we're in the BB and SB raises all-in when we have 33.
-----
EV in the race: 4(0.5)-1 = +1
EV in the domination: 4(0.2)-1 = -0.2
Is this correct?
--------------
X(1) - Y(0.2) = 0
X - 0.2*Y = 0
X = 0.2*Y
Y = 5X
Therefore if you're behind 5/6 times or less you can call?
Let's try this:
1(1) -0.2(5) = 0... Yeah, that looks about right.
1(2) -0.2(4) > 0... booyah!
DavidC
08-31-2005, 10:48 AM
EV(race): 3(0.5)-1 = 0.5
EV(dominated): 3(0.2)-1 = -0.4
0.5X -0.4Y = 0
0.5X = 0.4Y
X = 0.8Y
Y = 1.2X
Therefore X is 1/2.2 and Y is 1.2/2.2
Therefore you need to be ahead 45.45% of the time.
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