LetMedown, does this look correct to you?

[VivaLaViking]

If you had a straight possibilty, assume your down cards and flop contain a 4, 5 and 8, you need a six and seven to complete the straight. If you were inclined to bet on runner-runner, is this the correct probability?

(8 C 1)(4 C 1)
--------------- ~.014
(47 C 1)(46 C 1)

[LetYouDown]

Confusing wording, but assuming you mean that there are no 6's and 7's out, among your hand and the flop:

16/C(47,2) = 1.48%

...so I'm inclined to agree.

[VivaLaViking]

Yes, that's what I meant. It's the probability of any one single solution for a straight after the flop. It's what I'm working on re: Question for the whizes" and fractional outs. As always, Thanks.