Dommer
08-16-2005, 05:52 AM
I had this hand today:
Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em, $ BB (8 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)
BB ($107.18)
UTG ($96.10)
UTG+1 ($158.28)
MP1 ($146.41)
MP2 ($96)
Hero ($104.90)
Button ($116.90)
SB ($102.60)
Preflop: Hero is CO with 7/images/graemlins/spade.gif, 8/images/graemlins/spade.gif. SB posts a blind of $0.50.
<font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls $1, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises to $2</font>, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, Hero calls $2, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, BB calls $1, UTG+1 calls $1.
Flop: ($8.50) K/images/graemlins/club.gif, 6/images/graemlins/spade.gif, 9/images/graemlins/spade.gif <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font>
Turn: ($8.50) A/images/graemlins/club.gif <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font>
River: ($8.50) 2/images/graemlins/club.gif <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font>
Final Pot: $8.50
Results in white below: <font color="#FFFFFF">
BB doesn't show.
UTG+1 doesn't show.
MP1 has Kh Kd (three of a kind, kings).
Hero has 7s 8s (high card, ace).
Outcome: MP1 wins $8.50. </font>
PS: The betting messed up, he bet 4$ on the flop, I reraised to 15, he pushed and I called.
I thought I had to call because I was under the assumption that I was near 50% against any hand. Afterwards however I went to twodimes.net and found out I was only 21% to win against a set! The hand I thought he had. Also for some reason AK with no spade was more of a favorite v me than two pair, how is that possible? If the set is an 80% favorite because of full house outs, how is two pair more of a dog than one pair? I'm confused...
Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em, $ BB (8 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)
BB ($107.18)
UTG ($96.10)
UTG+1 ($158.28)
MP1 ($146.41)
MP2 ($96)
Hero ($104.90)
Button ($116.90)
SB ($102.60)
Preflop: Hero is CO with 7/images/graemlins/spade.gif, 8/images/graemlins/spade.gif. SB posts a blind of $0.50.
<font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls $1, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises to $2</font>, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, Hero calls $2, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, BB calls $1, UTG+1 calls $1.
Flop: ($8.50) K/images/graemlins/club.gif, 6/images/graemlins/spade.gif, 9/images/graemlins/spade.gif <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font>
Turn: ($8.50) A/images/graemlins/club.gif <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font>
River: ($8.50) 2/images/graemlins/club.gif <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font>
Final Pot: $8.50
Results in white below: <font color="#FFFFFF">
BB doesn't show.
UTG+1 doesn't show.
MP1 has Kh Kd (three of a kind, kings).
Hero has 7s 8s (high card, ace).
Outcome: MP1 wins $8.50. </font>
PS: The betting messed up, he bet 4$ on the flop, I reraised to 15, he pushed and I called.
I thought I had to call because I was under the assumption that I was near 50% against any hand. Afterwards however I went to twodimes.net and found out I was only 21% to win against a set! The hand I thought he had. Also for some reason AK with no spade was more of a favorite v me than two pair, how is that possible? If the set is an 80% favorite because of full house outs, how is two pair more of a dog than one pair? I'm confused...