08-06-2005, 08:33 PM
It seems that whenever someone raises on the flop, they usually have the 1st or 2nd nut. I've been calling the raises sometimes with the 5th nut or a decent draw. I'm new to omaha. Anyway, what if I always assumed that I was up against the flopped nuts when someone raised on the flop? Would this be a bad strategy or would I be way too tight and fold too many half-way decent hands ? That would mean that I would fold :
77XX on a K K 7 flop. I would assume he had 4 of a kind and fold because I'd only have one out here. I'm just finding that I'm wasting a lot of money by not believing that my opponent could possibly have the nuts and he usually does. I saw two guys in my game yesterday where over 40 hands, they NEVER folded. 100 % seen flop % . I just need some help on proper omaha strategy. I have preflop down since I use the hutchison system but on the flop, I often don't know how many outs I have because I'm not sure if my opponent has the nuts or the 2nd nuts. Thanks.
77XX on a K K 7 flop. I would assume he had 4 of a kind and fold because I'd only have one out here. I'm just finding that I'm wasting a lot of money by not believing that my opponent could possibly have the nuts and he usually does. I saw two guys in my game yesterday where over 40 hands, they NEVER folded. 100 % seen flop % . I just need some help on proper omaha strategy. I have preflop down since I use the hutchison system but on the flop, I often don't know how many outs I have because I'm not sure if my opponent has the nuts or the 2nd nuts. Thanks.