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The Absurdist
08-04-2005, 11:53 AM
Player X bets on the river and is called by Player Y. Before Player X is able to show his cards, Player Y flips his and reveals the winning hand. Is Player X allowed to muck, because his is the losing hand and Player Y essentially acted out of turn and showed first, or must he reveal his hand because he was called?

nuclear500
08-04-2005, 01:17 PM
By the rules, if anyone demands, he has to show. Otherwise its up to the table mannerism and if anyone really cares.

I'd care if the betting and action was high OR if Player X raised preflop, otherwise probably not.

Jack Bando
08-04-2005, 01:48 PM
If Y has the best possible hand, Y might flip first just to keep the game going at a good pace.

troymclur
08-04-2005, 02:37 PM
Well, maybe this will help:

I was involved in a hand in which i bluffed out the other guy in the pot. He said fold, then showed me the winning hand (middle pair) and asked if i had him. I showed him my cards and he saw that it was a bluff, we both threw away our cards and i raked the pot. The dealer then told me that since he didn't muck his hand after he said fold, he didn't technically fold and could have said call after seeing my hand, thus winning the pot.

However, at this same table, a friend of my said to the opposing player "checking again huh?", and the dealer, while not enforcing the rule, simply stated that he technically checked since he uttered the words and it was his action.

So i have no [censored] clue. /images/graemlins/smile.gif

nuclear500
08-04-2005, 04:10 PM
Verbally spoken actions are binding in Poker...not sure how a casino dealer could screw that up.

detroitplayer
08-04-2005, 06:29 PM
Your dealer was missing a chromosome.