fritzwar
07-23-2005, 09:43 PM
On p.146 of the new edition of Lee Jones' *Winning Low Limit Holdem* Jones is discussing heads up river play when first to act. He says:
"If you are betting a strong one-pair hand and get raised on the river (in a heads-up pot), you should call virually all the time. In fact, here's a good rule: If [heads up] you bet an overpair or top pair with an ace or king kicker and are raised always call. If you're going to fold in a situation like this, do it when you are making a 'thin' value bet. Perhaps you were betting second pair, or top pair with a very weak kicker. Even in those cases, you should fold only rarely -- perhaps 10% of the time."
And here the text has a footnote which says:
"The correct game-theoretical frequency is to fold one in N times where N is the number of big bets in the pot". [he gives an example then, saying that with 12 big bets in the pot, one should fold when raise 1/12 of the time in "situations such as you are in".]
Question -- what is Jones talking about here? What "game-theoretical result" does he think gives the result that the correct fold percentage here is 1/N?
Given that the range of hands he's talking about includes everything from overpairs down to top pair/weak kicker and 2nd pair/good kicker I sincerely doubt that any "game-theoretical" result delivers folding advice of the sort he gives with this formula.
Are there further unstated assumptions that get this result for him or is this another case of a poker author gesturing at "game theory" without a firm foundation?
"If you are betting a strong one-pair hand and get raised on the river (in a heads-up pot), you should call virually all the time. In fact, here's a good rule: If [heads up] you bet an overpair or top pair with an ace or king kicker and are raised always call. If you're going to fold in a situation like this, do it when you are making a 'thin' value bet. Perhaps you were betting second pair, or top pair with a very weak kicker. Even in those cases, you should fold only rarely -- perhaps 10% of the time."
And here the text has a footnote which says:
"The correct game-theoretical frequency is to fold one in N times where N is the number of big bets in the pot". [he gives an example then, saying that with 12 big bets in the pot, one should fold when raise 1/12 of the time in "situations such as you are in".]
Question -- what is Jones talking about here? What "game-theoretical result" does he think gives the result that the correct fold percentage here is 1/N?
Given that the range of hands he's talking about includes everything from overpairs down to top pair/weak kicker and 2nd pair/good kicker I sincerely doubt that any "game-theoretical" result delivers folding advice of the sort he gives with this formula.
Are there further unstated assumptions that get this result for him or is this another case of a poker author gesturing at "game theory" without a firm foundation?