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Gazzbut
07-20-2005, 09:11 AM
If a flop is two suited in a 10 handed game what is the probality that one or more people hold 2 hole cards of the same suit?

If you could also give me a brief idea of how this is calculated that would be great!! /images/graemlins/smile.gif

LetYouDown
07-20-2005, 10:37 AM
To get an exact answer, you'd need to use the inclusion/exclusion principle outlined by BruceZ in this post:

http://archiveserver.twoplustwo.com/showthreaded.php?Cat=&Board=&Number=417383&page=&v iew=&sb=5&o=&fpart=

Example # 3 demonstrates a similar problem. I'd actually like to see Bruce post all of the terms for this exact problem from a bystander's point of view.