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VivaLaViking
07-18-2005, 12:34 PM
Holding a pocket pair what is the probability of flopping an exclusive full house (without trips on the board)?

[ QUOTE ]

C(2,1)<-Set * C(48,1) * C(3,1)<-Filling Pair
----------------------------------------------
C(50,3)<-Total # of possible flops
.

288
------ ~ .147%
19600


[/ QUOTE ]

Can anyone verify if this is correct?

sekrah
07-18-2005, 01:39 PM
Not an expert on math,

But I think you are missing if trips hit the board (4-4-4, 9-9-9). so there's 12 more possible flops.

VivaLaViking
07-18-2005, 01:59 PM
Thank you for the responce but I was intentionally trying to avoid that situation of trips on board. As a note yesterday I was able to limp in with A 4 suited. Three players were in the flop. Trip 10's fell on the flop. The pot odds were not good so I folded. 4 fell on the turn followed by a river A. One of the other players raised hoping his 10's full of A's would hold up until the quad 10's was shown.

LetYouDown
07-18-2005, 02:50 PM
I think you're double counting.

[C(2,1) * C(12,1) * C(4,2)]/C(50,3) = 144/19600 or .734%

The way you did the math, you still have the decimal in the wrong place and it would be 1.47% not .147%.