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Me and You
07-17-2005, 11:03 PM
My question is do you get a percentage of the total rake of your games or the total of your rake?

For example if I fold pre flop but that hand gains $3 in rake do I get a % of that back or only when I contribute to the rake which in this case is 0.

Cheers
Liam

Altaslim
07-18-2005, 01:09 AM
Your contribution to rake is figured by taking the total rake for a particular hand divided by the number of players dealt into the hand. Thus a $3 rake with 6 players in the hand means that you have contributed $.50 in terms of your MGR.

Altaslim
07-18-2005, 01:11 AM
[ QUOTE ]
Your contribution to rake is figured by taking the total rake for a particular hand divided by the number of players dealt into the hand. Thus a $3 rake with 6 players in the hand means that you have contributed $.50 in terms of your MGR.

[/ QUOTE ]

Sorry, didn't finish the thought. If you have a RB deal, you then get a percentage of that $.50

Pov
07-18-2005, 01:54 AM
[ QUOTE ]

Sorry, didn't finish the thought.


[/ QUOTE ]

You can use the Edit link on posts you authored to change it in cases like this. You lose the ability to edit after a certain amount of time - I'm not sure how long, but it is at least several minutes. The proper etiquette is to "mark" the post as edited.