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KJL
07-12-2005, 12:42 AM
What are the odds of doing this,I figured them to be 12500:1
can someone either confirm this or tell me the correct answer or formula.
Thank you

BruceZ
07-12-2005, 12:51 AM
[ QUOTE ]
What are the odds of doing this,I figured them to be 12500:1
can someone either confirm this or tell me the correct answer or formula.
Thank you

[/ QUOTE ]

If you have hole cards that can flop a royal, then there is only 1 royal flop out of 50*49*48/6 = 19,600 total flops, so the odds are 19,599:1.

For example, if you hold JhTh, then the only royal flop would be the one containing Qh Kh Ah. You can also compute the probability of this flop as 3/50 * 2/49 * 1/48 = 1/19,600 or odds of 19,599:1.

KJL
07-12-2005, 01:02 AM
Yea that is what i did, i must have made a typo when i was doing the problem, thanks for the help

MelK
07-12-2005, 08:51 AM
So if you are playing Omaha and have J /images/graemlins/club.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif K /images/graemlins/club.gif Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif, your odds of flopping the royal would be 9,799:1.

LetYouDown
07-12-2005, 09:40 AM
[ QUOTE ]
So if you are playing Omaha and have J /images/graemlins/club.gif T /images/graemlins/heart.gif K /images/graemlins/club.gif Q /images/graemlins/heart.gif, your odds of flopping the royal would be 9,799:1.

[/ QUOTE ]
No. There are no longer 19,600 possible flops.

2/C(48,3) = 2/17296 = 8647:1.