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Toddy
07-08-2005, 10:49 AM
WHat is the correct math for this? There are 50 other cards and there are 6 aces or kings left. There are 3 cards on the flop? Can someone please show me the math

Thanks

LetYouDown
07-08-2005, 11:21 AM
Easiest way, I think, is to take the odds of NOT hitting and then subtract from 1.

You hold A-K.

There are C(50,3) possible flops.

There are C(44,3) possilbe flops without an A or a K.

1 - C(44,3)/C(50,3) = ~32.43%

MarkD
07-08-2005, 01:19 PM
Just to learn a bit more myself I did it the long way:
<font class="small">Code:</font><hr /><pre>
Flop Combo's
Axx C(3,1)*C(44,2) 2838 14.48%
AAx C(3,2)*C(44,1) 132 0.67%
AAA C(3,3) 1 0.01%
Kxx C(3,1)*C(44,2) 2838 14.48%
KKx C(3,2)*C(44,1) 132 0.67%
KKK C(3,3) 1 0.01%
AKx C(3,1)*C(3,1)*C(44,1) 396 2.02%
AAK C(3,2)*C(3,1) 9 0.05%
KKA C(3,2)*C(3,1) 9 0.05%
Total 6356
Probability 32.43%
</pre><hr />

Hold'me
07-08-2005, 11:07 PM
If your hole cards are unpaired, you will pair at least one of your cards on the flop 32.4% of the time. Simple as that.

Cobra
07-09-2005, 03:06 AM
A rule of thumb for hitting one or more of your cards on the flop is 5.5% times number of outs. Examples below:

AK hitting one or more: =6*5.5 = 33%
AX hitting an Ace: = 3*5.5 = 16.5%
KQ and having an ace come on flop = 4*5.5% = 22%

Cobra