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DiceyPlay
07-03-2005, 04:04 PM
suppose the following:

Consider each poker player a trial of an experiment. The experiment measures the mathematical probability of the players draw vs. outcome for all hands that player has played (the definition of the measure would need to be determined and could be a parameter). Create a function of the above with the number of hands played. Graph the result. I bet you get something resembling a normal distribution.

Each member (poker player) of your test group corresponds to a unique spot on your graph. A unique measure of their luck vs. bad-luck factor.

I wonder where I am on that graph from time to time.

Does any of this make sense to anyone?

shermn27
07-03-2005, 08:35 PM
Funny that you mention that b/c a psychology professor/friend of mine also believes that persons are normally distributed across the "luck" distribution. However, I think that luck doesn't really exist and only exists b/c we all die. If we did not die, then we would all eventually regress to the mean and thus there would be no such thing as luck. Of course this is awfully philisophical. /images/graemlins/smile.gif