Odds question...

[obisponator]

Hi guys, I am trying to explain to my friend pot-odds, and I can't give him a good explanation of why when you calculate pot odds, you don't include the chances that someone else at the table either has one of your outs or it was already folded. Can someone give me a quick and easy explanation for why you do not include cards that were dealt to other people to adjust your outs, and please dont say because there is an equally likely chance that they do have the card as if they don't. Thanks.

-Obi-

[SheetWise]

You do include them. When you do the calculation, you use all unseen cards as the universe. After the flop, there are assumed to be 47 unseen cards -- doesn't matter where they are, they're unseen. If you see cards that are not in play, adjust your calcs.

SheetWise

[pzhon]

[ QUOTE ]
Hi guys, I am trying to explain to my friend pot-odds, and I can't give him a good explanation of why when you calculate pot odds, you don't include the chances that someone else at the table either has one of your outs or it was already folded.

[/ QUOTE ]
That's not really about pot odds.

In many situations, you ignore the cards you don't see because you have little or no information about them. That you have no information would mean that whether you consider the hidden cards or not, you would get the same probability of improving your hand. (That's a qualitative interpretation of the definition of information.) It's much simpler not to break the calculation into cases if you are just going to get the same answer.

In some circumstances, you do have information about cards you don't see. If you have the ace of a suit, and 3 of that suit are on the board, and there is a lot of action, it is more likely than normal for someone to have a flush. That would mean only 7 cards give you a flush, not 9.