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mittman84
06-30-2005, 02:28 AM
If I have jack ten, my opponent has jack 3, and the flop comes jack, ten, rag so his only outs are runner runner 3's. What are the odds of him hitting runner runner 3's to beat me? just wondering becuase this just happened to me and it is only the second time i have seen this happen (different cards but exact same situation before) thanks

BruceZ
06-30-2005, 02:41 AM
[ QUOTE ]
If I have jack ten, my opponent has jack 3, and the flop comes jack, ten, rag so his only outs are runner runner 3's. What are the odds of him hitting runner runner 3's to beat me? just wondering becuase this just happened to me and it is only the second time i have seen this happen (different cards but exact same situation before) thanks

[/ QUOTE ]

3/45 * 2/44 = 329-to-1.

mittman84
06-30-2005, 12:57 PM
329-1, that is pretty low odds. Is that the worse possible beat in poker? can't think of anything that would be more unlikely.

danzasmack
06-30-2005, 02:01 PM
no, the worst possible beat would be runner-runner perfect-perfect (ex: you flop quad K's and guy has AA and hits running aces to win)

twodimes.net is a website that will tell you unlikely all your awful beats are.