limitti
01-23-2003, 05:12 AM
First two fine but the last one not? Comments welcome.
Online 3/6.
8 players, I limp UTG with KQo. Folded to button who raises, he has been raising with any pair, cards like TQ, almost any suited cards (not raising all the time but frequently). I'll call him Loosie from now on. Blinds fold. Heads up.
Flop 8d, 2h, 7c. I check, he bets, I call. Turn 3h. Both check. River 9s. I check, he bets. I call and win the pot, he had KJo. Called because I thought there is a fair chance he has a weaker king or QT, TJ type of hands and his turn check made me think he has no pair. Was that call ok?
Now a new player enters the table. Loosie from the hand above calls UTG+2, MP calls (loose), I raise in the cut off with AdKd, big blind (new player) reraises, others call and i cap it. Four to the flop.
Flop 8h, 4c, 5d.
Checked to me and I check too.
Turn Qd. BB bets, everyone including me calls.
River Ks. Checked to me and I ofcourse bet, only BB calls and I win the pot. The question is should I bet the flop here? I think everyone would call the flop bet, BB reraised preflop and could have a big pair and the other two would call with almost any two cards. There is a good chance I'm behind at this point. So I maybe shouldn't bet the flop but take a free card instead?
Now 7 players, Loosie open raises from the button. I reraise with KcTc in SB. BB folds, Loosie calls.
Flop 3s, Jh, 6c.
I bet, he calls.
Turn Kh.
I bet, he calls.
River 6c.
I check, he checks.
That river check was very stupid?? He would have called with any pair.
Thanks!
Online 3/6.
8 players, I limp UTG with KQo. Folded to button who raises, he has been raising with any pair, cards like TQ, almost any suited cards (not raising all the time but frequently). I'll call him Loosie from now on. Blinds fold. Heads up.
Flop 8d, 2h, 7c. I check, he bets, I call. Turn 3h. Both check. River 9s. I check, he bets. I call and win the pot, he had KJo. Called because I thought there is a fair chance he has a weaker king or QT, TJ type of hands and his turn check made me think he has no pair. Was that call ok?
Now a new player enters the table. Loosie from the hand above calls UTG+2, MP calls (loose), I raise in the cut off with AdKd, big blind (new player) reraises, others call and i cap it. Four to the flop.
Flop 8h, 4c, 5d.
Checked to me and I check too.
Turn Qd. BB bets, everyone including me calls.
River Ks. Checked to me and I ofcourse bet, only BB calls and I win the pot. The question is should I bet the flop here? I think everyone would call the flop bet, BB reraised preflop and could have a big pair and the other two would call with almost any two cards. There is a good chance I'm behind at this point. So I maybe shouldn't bet the flop but take a free card instead?
Now 7 players, Loosie open raises from the button. I reraise with KcTc in SB. BB folds, Loosie calls.
Flop 3s, Jh, 6c.
I bet, he calls.
Turn Kh.
I bet, he calls.
River 6c.
I check, he checks.
That river check was very stupid?? He would have called with any pair.
Thanks!