mattw
06-20-2005, 01:03 PM
In The Backgammon Book by Jacoby and Crawford, Penguin Books, 1976, p. 88, the authors state that being hit from 1 distance away is 31%. These guys were world class players.
I have had a couple of stats/probability classes in school many years ago. I know enough to be dangerous to myself.
Here's the question: the probability of a one on one die is 1/6. The probability of a one on the second die is 1/6. Added together, the probability of a one on either dice is 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6=1/3=33.3%. Why do the authors state the chance of being hit is 31%?
A difference of 2.3% may be inmaterial but I am curious. If any answers contain mathmatical calculations, please include a narrative.
Thanks in advance.
I have had a couple of stats/probability classes in school many years ago. I know enough to be dangerous to myself.
Here's the question: the probability of a one on one die is 1/6. The probability of a one on the second die is 1/6. Added together, the probability of a one on either dice is 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6=1/3=33.3%. Why do the authors state the chance of being hit is 31%?
A difference of 2.3% may be inmaterial but I am curious. If any answers contain mathmatical calculations, please include a narrative.
Thanks in advance.