ctv1116
06-12-2005, 05:13 PM
I've been pretty successful at 5/10 (2BB/100 after 50K hands) with a PF strategy where I almost never 3-bet from the BB to a steal-raise without the goods (AA-TT, AK, AQ). Further, when I'm stealing and get 3-bet, I pretty much play fit-or-fold post-flop. Which got me thinking, if I were playing against myself, I should be 3 betting much more often from the BB against a steal raise?
OTOH, IIRC, I remember reading a post by Schneids (apologies to Schnieds if he never said this), which stated that one shouldn't 3-bet without the goods because there was no real reason to wrestle control of the hand out of position. You should just call and let the stealer bluff off a few chips on the flop and turn. Further, one might want to take the approach of this article (http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/issue5/jockusch0505.html), which postulates that you should never 3-bet, and should alternately auto-check-raise any flop which you would otherwise 3-bet PF.
What should be my 3-betting standards versus your typical 30% steal raise TAG but who plays fairly weak postflop?
OTOH, IIRC, I remember reading a post by Schneids (apologies to Schnieds if he never said this), which stated that one shouldn't 3-bet without the goods because there was no real reason to wrestle control of the hand out of position. You should just call and let the stealer bluff off a few chips on the flop and turn. Further, one might want to take the approach of this article (http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/issue5/jockusch0505.html), which postulates that you should never 3-bet, and should alternately auto-check-raise any flop which you would otherwise 3-bet PF.
What should be my 3-betting standards versus your typical 30% steal raise TAG but who plays fairly weak postflop?