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NoMoPro
06-06-2005, 01:45 PM
Can someone tell me the odds of flopping two pair (assuming you hold 2 cards of different denominations)? Thanks in advance...

LetYouDown
06-06-2005, 01:58 PM
I assume you're talking about holding something like A-3 and hitting an A and a 3 on the flop...instead of having A-3 and having the board come A-K-K.

So, odds of hitting exactly two pair using both of your hole cards should be:

(C(3,1) * C(3,1) * C(44,1))/C(50,3) I believe. Comes out to about 2% or about ~50 to 1.

NoMoPro
06-07-2005, 12:13 AM
That was indeed what I was talking about, and thanks much for the quick response. I think in the future I'll feel less bad when I lay down a marginal starting hand and see that I would have flopped two pair.