theredpill5
06-02-2005, 12:57 AM
Does anyone know this ? Does it figure up how many bought in and how many saw the flop then divide the two numbers and add it to the last hand's percent then divide by 2 ?
Or does it add the last 10 hands seen flop percent then divide by 10 ? Something like this ? Thanks.
I guess both methods would be somewhat similar but I would think if you did only the last 10 then that number would be more accurate than the first method which averages all of the hands.
Or does it add the last 10 hands seen flop percent then divide by 10 ? Something like this ? Thanks.
I guess both methods would be somewhat similar but I would think if you did only the last 10 then that number would be more accurate than the first method which averages all of the hands.