Phat Mack
12-17-2002, 03:25 AM
PL HE 2&5. UTG (weak tight) makes it $25 to go, two callers, I call with 7c9c. Flop is 6c8sAc. UTG bets $100, call, call, I call. UTG has AA or AK. I like my hand a lot, but like it better against AK than AA. I don't know how good my club draw is with the other two callers.
Turn is Th. UTG bets $500, fold, fold. I have $2000 left and UTG has me covered. I am 95% sure he has AA. I raise him $500, thinking I had the nuts and didn't want to drive him off.
I did very well on this hand when he came over the top, put me all in, and didn't fill up. But on the drive home I had second thoughts about how I played it. When I raised $500 on the turn I was trying to milk him and wasn't expecting a re-raise, and in fact gave him 4:1 for a 3:1 shot, whereas I get even money when I'm a 1:3 favorite. Does anyone else think it's wrong to give an opponent good odds on a milk bet? It was almost as though, by raising $500, I was creating a win/win situation.
Turn is Th. UTG bets $500, fold, fold. I have $2000 left and UTG has me covered. I am 95% sure he has AA. I raise him $500, thinking I had the nuts and didn't want to drive him off.
I did very well on this hand when he came over the top, put me all in, and didn't fill up. But on the drive home I had second thoughts about how I played it. When I raised $500 on the turn I was trying to milk him and wasn't expecting a re-raise, and in fact gave him 4:1 for a 3:1 shot, whereas I get even money when I'm a 1:3 favorite. Does anyone else think it's wrong to give an opponent good odds on a milk bet? It was almost as though, by raising $500, I was creating a win/win situation.