Awesemo
04-17-2005, 09:09 PM
Party Poker 30+3 No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t15 (10 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)
Button (t790)
SB (t785)
BB (t800)
Hero (t800)
UTG+1 (t800)
UTG+2 (t800)
MP1 (t800)
MP2 (t870)
MP3 (t800)
CO (t755)
Preflop: Hero is UTG with Q/images/graemlins/heart.gif, Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif.
<font color="#CC3333">Hero raises to t60</font>, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+2 calls t60, <font color="#666666">3 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">CO raises to t105</font>, <font color="#666666">3 folds</font>, Hero calls t45, UTG+2 calls t45.
Flop: (t337.50) J/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, 4/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, 6/images/graemlins/spade.gif <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
Hero checks, UTG+2 checks, <font color="#CC3333">CO bets t450</font>, Hero folds, UTG+2 folds.
Final Pot: t787.50
My thought on the hand was that the suspicious reraise preflop either meant that the villain had AA, AK, or KK. I dont understand why people do the whole min reraise thing, but it usually seems to be with those hands. So, on the flop since he overbets the pot, I put him on AA or KK and fold. Is my reasoning correct, or am I restricting his range of hands too much?
Button (t790)
SB (t785)
BB (t800)
Hero (t800)
UTG+1 (t800)
UTG+2 (t800)
MP1 (t800)
MP2 (t870)
MP3 (t800)
CO (t755)
Preflop: Hero is UTG with Q/images/graemlins/heart.gif, Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif.
<font color="#CC3333">Hero raises to t60</font>, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+2 calls t60, <font color="#666666">3 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">CO raises to t105</font>, <font color="#666666">3 folds</font>, Hero calls t45, UTG+2 calls t45.
Flop: (t337.50) J/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, 4/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, 6/images/graemlins/spade.gif <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
Hero checks, UTG+2 checks, <font color="#CC3333">CO bets t450</font>, Hero folds, UTG+2 folds.
Final Pot: t787.50
My thought on the hand was that the suspicious reraise preflop either meant that the villain had AA, AK, or KK. I dont understand why people do the whole min reraise thing, but it usually seems to be with those hands. So, on the flop since he overbets the pot, I put him on AA or KK and fold. Is my reasoning correct, or am I restricting his range of hands too much?