View Full Version : Royal Flush frequency - Texas Hold 'Em
Hey all.
After approx how many hands should I expect to hit a royal flush when holding both hole cards at Texas Hold em? (I hit my first this week).
Taking into consideration that many sites offer some sort of bonus for hitting a royal: any thoughts on how this alters strategy?
(Apologies if these are basic questions: did a search but didn't really find any answers).
Thanks
FishHooks
04-02-2005, 07:34 PM
i believe the chances of getting a royal flush are in the ballpark of 650,000:1
gamble4pro
04-03-2005, 12:05 PM
If you hold two cards from a royal flush, the odds of hitting it by river are C(45,2)/C(50,5). This is about 0.0467%.
NeoGeo
04-03-2005, 12:15 PM
[ QUOTE ]
If you hold two cards from a royal flush, the odds of hitting it by river are C(45,2)/C(50,5). This is about 0.0467%.
[/ QUOTE ]
Explain the functional notation of C(X,X) please.
Thank you.
gamble4pro
04-03-2005, 12:20 PM
C(n,k)= n!/k!(n-k)!, where n! = 1*2*...*n
elitegimp
04-03-2005, 02:31 PM
[ QUOTE ]
C(n,k)= n!/k!(n-k)!, where n! = 1*2*...*n
[/ QUOTE ]
further, it's the number of unique groups of k objects you can make out of a set n objects -- for example, if n = 3 and k = 2, you are counting the ways to make groups of 2 objects when you have 3 objects in front of you.
Call your objects 'A', 'B', and 'C' -- we want unique groups, which means that AB and BA are the same. In this case, we can make a list: AB, AC, and BC are the only ways to group two items together, so C(3,2) should be 3. Plugging in the quoted formula, we see that 3!/(2!*1!) = 6/2 = 3.
[ QUOTE ]
If you hold two cards from a royal flush, the odds of hitting it by river are C(45,2)/C(50,5). This is about 0.0467%.
[/ QUOTE ]
Thanks. So when I hold both hole cards I'd expect to hit the royal by the river around once every 2141 times.
Think I can work out strategy changes. /images/graemlins/tongue.gif
NeoGeo
04-04-2005, 09:35 AM
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
C(n,k)= n!/k!(n-k)!, where n! = 1*2*...*n
[/ QUOTE ]
further, it's the number of unique groups of k objects you can make out of a set n objects -- for example, if n = 3 and k = 2, you are counting the ways to make groups of 2 objects when you have 3 objects in front of you.
Call your objects 'A', 'B', and 'C' -- we want unique groups, which means that AB and BA are the same. In this case, we can make a list: AB, AC, and BC are the only ways to group two items together, so C(3,2) should be 3. Plugging in the quoted formula, we see that 3!/(2!*1!) = 6/2 = 3.
[/ QUOTE ]
Got it! Thanks for the clarity. It's been awhile since I last took Discrete Math class.
NeoGeo
04-04-2005, 09:38 AM
[ QUOTE ]
C(n,k)= n!/k!(n-k)!, where n! = 1*2*...*n
[/ QUOTE ]
Thanks for the re-education.
NeoGeo
04-04-2005, 09:51 AM
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
If you hold two cards from a royal flush, the odds of hitting it by river are C(45,2)/C(50,5). This is about 0.0467%.
[/ QUOTE ]
Thanks. So when I hold both hole cards I'd expect to hit the royal by the river around once every 2141 times.
Think I can work out strategy changes. /images/graemlins/tongue.gif
[/ QUOTE ]
However, if your hole cards are from royal and only 1 card on flop help you, your chance of getting royal with runner runner is 1/C(47,2) = 0.101% or 1 to 989 odd. I hope this helps if you want to be royal chaser.
NeoGeo
04-04-2005, 09:53 AM
[ QUOTE ]
If you hold two cards from a royal flush, the odds of hitting it by river are C(45,2)/C(50,5). This is about 0.0467%.
[/ QUOTE ]
I understand the logic of C(45,2), but I am not sure of why C(50,5). Can you show me the logic how it derives to royal count. It is quite intereting. Thank you.
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