All-in on flop Q?

I had an opponent do this to me last nite was wondering if he or I made the mistake because of the drawing odds he had on the flop. I had AcKh in a .25/.5 PL game on a flop of Ad 8c 5d my opponent had Jd 8d and I ended up getting him all-in here. Turn brings his J and the river brings him the flush. My question is: Is his 2-1 call correct on the flop? And should I be pushing my draws to get all-in here vs. top pair?

Thanx, JP

Thanx, JP

[BonJoviJones]

Well, it's a coin flip (501-499 his favor), so he should call given 2-1 odds.

Assuming he put you on top pair great kicker he made a good play.

Reference (http://www.twodimes.net/poker/?g=h&b=Ad+8c+5d&d=&h=Ac+Kh%0D%0AJd+8d)

[Lurker]

As JP noted, it was not a 2-1 call...

IMO, it is okay to pressure the pot with a hand like your opponent had. When I flop a pair and a flush draw I will get it all in if I do the betting and can read my opponent's hand for a big ace. The danger is that even if I read my opponent for top pair or the like, if he has my unpaired card as his kicker or his over-pair, or if he has a single flush card of higher rank than mine, then he will be the favorite and not me. It is difficult to get this kind of detailed read without x-ray vision...all the more reason to be the aggressor and move in yourself instead of calling all-in to push this situation even further in your favor.

"And should I be pushing my draws to get all-in here vs. top pair?"