oaktoon
03-29-2005, 12:25 PM
Played a tourney last night-- came down to 3 of us-- I had 25K in chips; others roughly 12 and 8. Blinds were 1 and 2K, so if you didn't act two rounds in row, even chipleader-- me-- is losing 25% of his chips.
So i was blinded down to 22-- less than half the chips-- and the low guy goes all-in, and I have KJ suited. I call-- he has pocket 8s and wins the race. Anyone question that call in a three-handed game??
So now I'm lowman and a hand or two later I'm BB and same guy is SB. I see him handling his chips like he wants to make a bigger raise, but he calls. I have 87 and flop is 973. I figure he's got an overcard or two-- probably an ace or King-- but chances he has a 9 are about 1 in 8-- maybe a bit more, given his hand actions with the chips, but not much. I go all-in trying to either steal the blind or induce a call with me as big favorite if he has, say, KJ or KQ. He has K9 and it holds up and I finish 3rd.
Anyone question either of those two decisions-- just curious.
So i was blinded down to 22-- less than half the chips-- and the low guy goes all-in, and I have KJ suited. I call-- he has pocket 8s and wins the race. Anyone question that call in a three-handed game??
So now I'm lowman and a hand or two later I'm BB and same guy is SB. I see him handling his chips like he wants to make a bigger raise, but he calls. I have 87 and flop is 973. I figure he's got an overcard or two-- probably an ace or King-- but chances he has a 9 are about 1 in 8-- maybe a bit more, given his hand actions with the chips, but not much. I go all-in trying to either steal the blind or induce a call with me as big favorite if he has, say, KJ or KQ. He has K9 and it holds up and I finish 3rd.
Anyone question either of those two decisions-- just curious.