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FlyingOver
10-10-2002, 08:32 AM
hi guys,
i have one simple question to ask about a hand i played tonight on PP no limit $50 max buy in game.
One MP limper, LP makes it 5 times the BB
I fold 22 in BB for another $2.
LP raiser had $77
i had $67

Thanks
-MJ

Greg (FossilMan)
10-10-2002, 08:48 AM
Unless MP had a history of limp-reraising, I would call the $2 with those implied odds.

Later, Greg Raymer (FossilMan)

10-10-2002, 01:49 PM
Greg,
I play very little NL except for sats at the WSOP and WPO. But what do you hope to hit with 22 that you can bet with any confidence? Isn't there a strong possibility that you end up with set over set, and even if the opposition does not have it they can represent it. I know you well enough to know that you are not adding value to the hand because of the low stakes. In my opinion there are better places to put one's money into play.

Mark W
10-10-2002, 01:51 PM

Greg (FossilMan)
10-10-2002, 03:00 PM
I never thought I was wrong to bet a set, any set, with confidence. I mean, we're talking holdem here, not Omaha. While I have lost with a set of 2s (or other bottom set) to a higher set in holdem, I've won a LOT more money with bottom set vs. top pair and two pair than I've lost to those higher sets.

Also, just because there are better spots to put your money in doesn't mean this one isn't profitable. And, as a general rule, I pursue all situations that I believe are profitable.

Later, Greg Raymer (FossilMan)

Mark W
10-11-2002, 04:07 AM
I guess that's why I suck at No Limit /forums/images/icons/smile.gif In a ring game ,which I think this was, I can see your point and agree with you upon further reflection. But since, all of my NL experience has been tourneys at the WPO and the WSOP I was thinking from a tourney perspectice; therefore, I have erred /forums/images/icons/blush.gif

qwerty
10-11-2002, 06:46 AM
When you call here you are of course hoping to flop a set, but from what I know of the way you play (from posts here) I expect you to bet (maby even over bet) a wide range of flops which miss you. My questions are how wide a range of flops do you bet? Do you over bet the flop in this situation ? if yes by how much? Would you check-raise some of the flops you miss? Of course, "it depends", but let's say you just sat down and dont have a read on the raiser.


Here are a few interesting flops (let us say a $8 pot with $70 staks):
A83
T63
T63 3 spades (and you dont have 2s)
JT3
653

For the flops that you do bet or check-raise, would you play them differently if you hand was 33 instead of 22?

Thats a lot of questions, so maby it would be shorter (and more interesting) to see what are the genral considerations you take into acount on the flop to decide what to do.

Thanks in advance

Qwerty

Greg (FossilMan)
10-11-2002, 10:37 AM
First thing is I (almost) never overbet. I just don't believe in it. In a tourney if the amount I would like to bet is half or so of my stack, then I would likely bet all-in instead. In a cash game I always have lots of money on the table, so it never applies there.

If I call a raise with 22 and put any more money in the pot without a set, it is going to be based entirely upon my read of the opponent. Basically, I'm going to see how he reacts to the flop, and then decide if I think he has an AK that missed, or a pocket pair that has just had one or more overcards arrive. If I don't have a read on him at all, then I'm probably going to check-and-fold.

Later, Greg Raymer (FossilMan)