avalanche201
03-20-2005, 03:37 AM
Hey all- ahh finally a place where the whole point isnt to insult others. Anyways, I was in a tournament (live) today that i qualified for, for a seat at the WSOP. There was about 450 people to start, and i started on a stack about 1,000. After playing for about 3 hours and getting just #$%^, I was up to 1,350.
I get pocket queens in middle position, a lady had limped (the b-blind are $150 at this point) she was a short stack so I raised to what she had left ($450 total)hoping to isolate me and her. Down the table was a kid that had been raising a lot and had made some questionable calls earlier. He re-raised me to 700 total. The lady who limped folded, and it was up to me. As i said I thought this was a pretty weak player, so i was a bit scared about pocket kings or aces, but not too much. Minus my 450, i was left with 900, and 250 to call (that would have left me with $650). Instead i decide to go all in, i do, and he calls.
He flips over AJ suited, and I was right for the most part as that is not an all-in hand (in my oppinion of course). The flop comes rags with a king, no strait or flush draw for him, next card is a blank, and of course he catches his ace on the river (a 1 in 14 chance). I in my suito hellmuth fashion blow a gasket, and walk away. In all i had him down to one card, and ace, which is about as bad of odds as you can get. I mean isnt poker in tournaments about getting your money in with the best hand?
Anyways I still am questioning my play though. If it were kings or aces, I would have no doubt that my play was right, but with queens i am still a bit confused. I have found that it is much easier to call an all-in, then it is to see a flop that you have nothing and then call an all-in. So i guess my main question is, do you agree with the play, or should I have called, and then went all in, with the possiblity that he folds since he has nothing?
I get pocket queens in middle position, a lady had limped (the b-blind are $150 at this point) she was a short stack so I raised to what she had left ($450 total)hoping to isolate me and her. Down the table was a kid that had been raising a lot and had made some questionable calls earlier. He re-raised me to 700 total. The lady who limped folded, and it was up to me. As i said I thought this was a pretty weak player, so i was a bit scared about pocket kings or aces, but not too much. Minus my 450, i was left with 900, and 250 to call (that would have left me with $650). Instead i decide to go all in, i do, and he calls.
He flips over AJ suited, and I was right for the most part as that is not an all-in hand (in my oppinion of course). The flop comes rags with a king, no strait or flush draw for him, next card is a blank, and of course he catches his ace on the river (a 1 in 14 chance). I in my suito hellmuth fashion blow a gasket, and walk away. In all i had him down to one card, and ace, which is about as bad of odds as you can get. I mean isnt poker in tournaments about getting your money in with the best hand?
Anyways I still am questioning my play though. If it were kings or aces, I would have no doubt that my play was right, but with queens i am still a bit confused. I have found that it is much easier to call an all-in, then it is to see a flop that you have nothing and then call an all-in. So i guess my main question is, do you agree with the play, or should I have called, and then went all in, with the possiblity that he folds since he has nothing?