Brom
03-19-2005, 06:43 AM
I have a math question involving pocket pairs in the big blind. It's mostly for lowish pocket pairs where one would have to hit a set to win the pot, but not really exclusive to just low pairs.
First I'm going to lay down a few assumptions to follow that make this problem a little more simple. I'm going to assume that the odds of one hitting a set or better on the flop are 7.5:1, and that when one hits this set (or better), it will win every time. Second I'm going to assume that there is a 0% chance of a limp reraise in the scenario, and there is a 100% chance that the players who called one bet preflop will call one more. And lastly, I am assuming a standard limit Hold'em game with a small blind half the size of the big bling, the big blind equal to one small bet (on the preflop and flop betting rounds), and the big bet equal to double the small bet (on the turn and river betting rounds).
Now for the scenario question. Say I'm in the big blind holding 5/images/graemlins/spade.gif5/images/graemlins/heart.gif (note the suits are unimportant), three players have limped in, the small blind has completed, and the action is on me. Should I raise this knowing that the one small bet I commit to the pot here is going to build a pot that is 9 small bets (2 bets from each of the four other players plus one from my big blind)?
I usually don't raise low or mid pocket pairs out of the blinds with only a few limpers in, but can I do it for value? My one bet seems to be collecting 9:1 odds when I only need 7.5:1 to hit a great hand. Maybe this one has been discussed before somewhere and I just couldn't find it. If it has and someone knows of it could they post the link or reference the book where it was written? Am I totally off on this play in thinking that it is profitable, or have I been missing out on a lot of profit in the past?
First I'm going to lay down a few assumptions to follow that make this problem a little more simple. I'm going to assume that the odds of one hitting a set or better on the flop are 7.5:1, and that when one hits this set (or better), it will win every time. Second I'm going to assume that there is a 0% chance of a limp reraise in the scenario, and there is a 100% chance that the players who called one bet preflop will call one more. And lastly, I am assuming a standard limit Hold'em game with a small blind half the size of the big bling, the big blind equal to one small bet (on the preflop and flop betting rounds), and the big bet equal to double the small bet (on the turn and river betting rounds).
Now for the scenario question. Say I'm in the big blind holding 5/images/graemlins/spade.gif5/images/graemlins/heart.gif (note the suits are unimportant), three players have limped in, the small blind has completed, and the action is on me. Should I raise this knowing that the one small bet I commit to the pot here is going to build a pot that is 9 small bets (2 bets from each of the four other players plus one from my big blind)?
I usually don't raise low or mid pocket pairs out of the blinds with only a few limpers in, but can I do it for value? My one bet seems to be collecting 9:1 odds when I only need 7.5:1 to hit a great hand. Maybe this one has been discussed before somewhere and I just couldn't find it. If it has and someone knows of it could they post the link or reference the book where it was written? Am I totally off on this play in thinking that it is profitable, or have I been missing out on a lot of profit in the past?