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HollywoodDB
03-18-2005, 06:45 PM
I read in one of my books, the odds of flopping an overcard and no set with JJ is 47%, QQ 31% and KK 22%. What is the math equation used to figure this out?

Big Country
03-18-2005, 07:13 PM
with 50 unseen cards, each card has a 2% chance of coming up.

With KK, that means 4 aces 3 times(3 cards on a flop), so 4*3*2=24%, discount for the chance that you get both an ace and a king, and your 22% seems right. (I don't feel like figuring all the math for the possibilities of getting an ace and a jack, and I'm not 100% sure I would do it right)

Similar math for the queens and jacks, just with more cards to give the overcard, and greater discounts that you get a jack with those greater number of cards.

HollywoodDB
03-18-2005, 07:41 PM
OK, I see. Thanks. So actually, it would start with 50 unseen cards, 49 unseen cards and then on the 3rd card of the flop 48 unseen cards.

mce86
03-24-2005, 03:48 PM
What are the odds?

There are 50 cards left....

12 of them are overcards.

12 out of 50 is about 1 out of 4.2.

So, the flop is out of 3.....so the odds are slightly with you to not see an overcard on the flop....and against you to the river.

xxxxx
03-24-2005, 07:27 PM
The odds the first card is not an overcard is 38/50. The odds the second card is not an overcard (given the first is not) is 37/49. The odds the third card is not an overcard (given the first two are not) is 36/48. The odds there are no overcards in the entire flop is (38*37*36)/(50*49*48)=43%. 57% of the time there will be at least one overcard.