chaz64
03-17-2005, 12:57 PM
...are lower than normal, I would think.
I was trying to figure this out after this hand:
PokerStars 0.50/1.00 Hold'em (10 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)
Preflop: Hero is MP3 with K/images/graemlins/heart.gif, K/images/graemlins/spade.gif.
<font color="#666666">4 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP2 raises</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero 3-bets</font>, <font color="#666666">4 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP2 caps</font>, Hero calls.
Flop: (9.50 SB) 6/images/graemlins/club.gif, 5/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, Q/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP2 bets</font>, Hero calls.
Turn: (5.75 BB) J/images/graemlins/heart.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP2 bets</font>, Hero calls.
River: (7.75 BB) 8/images/graemlins/spade.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP2 bets</font>, Hero calls.
Final Pot: 9.75 BB
If we assume villain caps with AA, KK, QQ, AK, then I'm beat by AA/QQ, but ahead of AK.
Calling him down from the flop, I'm getting 2.9:1 effective odds. Neglecting another KK, I'm behind AA and QQ which occur 0.9% of the time but I think I'm still against AK often enough to call here.
AK occurs 1.2% of the time, so with half the kings out of the deck does this mean that it would now occur 0.6% of the time?
I'm not sure if this is right, can someone tell me if I'm off the mark here? Comments appreciated.
I was trying to figure this out after this hand:
PokerStars 0.50/1.00 Hold'em (10 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)
Preflop: Hero is MP3 with K/images/graemlins/heart.gif, K/images/graemlins/spade.gif.
<font color="#666666">4 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP2 raises</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero 3-bets</font>, <font color="#666666">4 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP2 caps</font>, Hero calls.
Flop: (9.50 SB) 6/images/graemlins/club.gif, 5/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, Q/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP2 bets</font>, Hero calls.
Turn: (5.75 BB) J/images/graemlins/heart.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP2 bets</font>, Hero calls.
River: (7.75 BB) 8/images/graemlins/spade.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP2 bets</font>, Hero calls.
Final Pot: 9.75 BB
If we assume villain caps with AA, KK, QQ, AK, then I'm beat by AA/QQ, but ahead of AK.
Calling him down from the flop, I'm getting 2.9:1 effective odds. Neglecting another KK, I'm behind AA and QQ which occur 0.9% of the time but I think I'm still against AK often enough to call here.
AK occurs 1.2% of the time, so with half the kings out of the deck does this mean that it would now occur 0.6% of the time?
I'm not sure if this is right, can someone tell me if I'm off the mark here? Comments appreciated.