LuckYou777
03-15-2005, 12:39 PM
pretty much any cards mathematics question lists "choose" as an operation... (i.e., 52choose2 or something?)
my question is, how do you do the choose operation? not knowing this seems like a pretty serious mathematical flaw in my card game.
walk me through the steps seen here, taken from a forum about Kings Vs. Aces... what to do on the calculator when you see the "C"?
[ QUOTE ]
There are 6 ways to have AA, so the probability of 1 particular player having it is 6/C(50,2).
Multiply this by 8 players to get 8*6/C(50,2). This alone gets you very close, but it will double count all cases where 2 players have AA, so for the exact answer we have to subtract this off. The probability that 2 specific players have AA is 1/C(50,4) since there is only one way to deal 4 aces to 2 players. Since no more than 2 players can have AA, we can just multiply this by the number of 2 player pairs C(8,2). So the exact answer for the whole thing is:
8*6/C(50,2) - C(8,2)/C(50,4) = 1 in 25.6 = 24.6-to-1.
[/ QUOTE ]
all help appreciated.
monte /images/graemlins/club.gif
my question is, how do you do the choose operation? not knowing this seems like a pretty serious mathematical flaw in my card game.
walk me through the steps seen here, taken from a forum about Kings Vs. Aces... what to do on the calculator when you see the "C"?
[ QUOTE ]
There are 6 ways to have AA, so the probability of 1 particular player having it is 6/C(50,2).
Multiply this by 8 players to get 8*6/C(50,2). This alone gets you very close, but it will double count all cases where 2 players have AA, so for the exact answer we have to subtract this off. The probability that 2 specific players have AA is 1/C(50,4) since there is only one way to deal 4 aces to 2 players. Since no more than 2 players can have AA, we can just multiply this by the number of 2 player pairs C(8,2). So the exact answer for the whole thing is:
8*6/C(50,2) - C(8,2)/C(50,4) = 1 in 25.6 = 24.6-to-1.
[/ QUOTE ]
all help appreciated.
monte /images/graemlins/club.gif