shmahappens
03-15-2005, 02:06 AM
I have been running into this play over and over, and I just don't get it. A raiser (stealing or not) folds everyone but the blinds, maybe just one of them calls. The board comes two of a suit and the blinds either bets out or checkraises the pf raiser and ends up capping it with their four-flush (sometimes w/ a straight draw, pair, or otherwise, but often without any of these added outs). Am I missing something huge here, or should this cap only make sense when the pf caller has about a 50% chance to win (-rake, +a folded sb or wahtever)? I'm baffled as if i'm missing some concept i don't understand it, but i've seen players who i (previously) respected make this move, sometimes even into very tight aggressive raisers who are obviously ahead. They clearly aren't trying to buy a free card, as the 'raise the flop, check the turn from out of position' play stopped working when I left 3/6. What am I missing? Or is this just another reason to love the PP 15/30 games, and learn to jam the pot while ahead and be able to fold to the 3rd of suit on the turn.