sonicblue
03-13-2005, 06:31 AM
On pages 94-95 of Poker Essays the following hand is described by the author --
"a hand I played in a $20-40 hold'em game....I held..."
A /images/graemlins/club.gif 6 /images/graemlins/club.gif
"and managed to get trapped in a large multiway pot that went to three bets before the flop. The flop came:
Q /images/graemlins/diamond.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 6 /images/graemlins/diamond.gif
....There was a bet and several callers before the action got to me. Since I was getting pot odds of approximately 25-to-1 .....I went ahead and called."
I'm confused, I don't understand why the pot odds are 25-1...are these the odds of hitting the nut flush? There's something going right over my head, no doubt, because the highest pot odds (bet wise) I consider are 9-to-1 in a full ring game, or the outs x 2 + 2 = % chance (probability not odds) of success for a given hand. /images/graemlins/confused.gif
Thanks to anyone who takes the time...
"a hand I played in a $20-40 hold'em game....I held..."
A /images/graemlins/club.gif 6 /images/graemlins/club.gif
"and managed to get trapped in a large multiway pot that went to three bets before the flop. The flop came:
Q /images/graemlins/diamond.gif 9 /images/graemlins/club.gif 6 /images/graemlins/diamond.gif
....There was a bet and several callers before the action got to me. Since I was getting pot odds of approximately 25-to-1 .....I went ahead and called."
I'm confused, I don't understand why the pot odds are 25-1...are these the odds of hitting the nut flush? There's something going right over my head, no doubt, because the highest pot odds (bet wise) I consider are 9-to-1 in a full ring game, or the outs x 2 + 2 = % chance (probability not odds) of success for a given hand. /images/graemlins/confused.gif
Thanks to anyone who takes the time...