jcmack13
03-07-2005, 05:46 AM
I've been playing 1/2 6max, and occasionally I will cap pre-flop with a weaker hand than one normally would PF cap with if I have position on the reraiser, and I was wondering if this was a mistake. For example, if it's folded to me in the CO, I'll open-raise with something like A4s. If the Button and SB fold, but the BB 3-bets and it folds back to me, sometimes I'll cap with it, hoping the BB will give me credit for better than I've got, and also hoping to control the post-flop aggression. The rationale is to maybe get him to fold a better ace on the turn, or think his nines or tens are way behind, esp. if high cards flop. Is this a leak? Will most players at this level be committed to a showdown if they call a PF cap? I just feel I can get a lot of respect (and expected value) from that last pre-flop dollar, and I feel calling the three-bet is a much weaker play.
I also feel I get value if i hit my two pair, trips or flush and it goes to showdown and the table sees what I capped with. Hopefully it works as a form of advertising and they're more likely to call me down in subsequent pots, which is profitable to me since I do this marginal PF cap infrequently and most of the time I'll be holding the best hand at showdown.
Thoughts?
I also feel I get value if i hit my two pair, trips or flush and it goes to showdown and the table sees what I capped with. Hopefully it works as a form of advertising and they're more likely to call me down in subsequent pots, which is profitable to me since I do this marginal PF cap infrequently and most of the time I'll be holding the best hand at showdown.
Thoughts?