grandgnu
03-01-2005, 12:09 PM
We're in a 14-player $50 Pot-Limit Hold 'Em event. Still at around 11-12 players from what I recall. We've passed the add-on point (you start with 1500 chips for $30 and add-on another 1000 chips for $20)
I'm up to around 4K in chips, one of the larger stacks at the table and on the BB (blinds at 150/300) and I hold 7/8. My opponent limps in from position (Button) with no other callers and the SB folds, it's her and I heads-up.
Flop is 7d 8d Js
Pot is around 750 chips and I bet out 300, she re-raises me the pot and I, holding two pair re-raise her the new pot, getting her all-in (I still have around 700-800 chips after this).
She calls with Ad Jh. Her explanation was that she had the Ace of diamonds and figured she could catch the flush (oye vey, another runner-runner chaser)
Granted, she had top pair and top kicker, but my re-raise showed significant strength. The hand was played exactly how I wanted. I wanted her to push against my flop raise, and I wanted her to call, I figured my hand was best at that point.
Of course she caught the Ace on the turn and her two pair beat mine. But did she have correct pot-odds to call after I re-raised her re-raise with only the naked Ace? I could definetely see if she had A/J of diamonds that she'd have the flush draw and top pair top kicker, but she didn't have the flush draw except for runner-runner if she gets lucky.
I'm up to around 4K in chips, one of the larger stacks at the table and on the BB (blinds at 150/300) and I hold 7/8. My opponent limps in from position (Button) with no other callers and the SB folds, it's her and I heads-up.
Flop is 7d 8d Js
Pot is around 750 chips and I bet out 300, she re-raises me the pot and I, holding two pair re-raise her the new pot, getting her all-in (I still have around 700-800 chips after this).
She calls with Ad Jh. Her explanation was that she had the Ace of diamonds and figured she could catch the flush (oye vey, another runner-runner chaser)
Granted, she had top pair and top kicker, but my re-raise showed significant strength. The hand was played exactly how I wanted. I wanted her to push against my flop raise, and I wanted her to call, I figured my hand was best at that point.
Of course she caught the Ace on the turn and her two pair beat mine. But did she have correct pot-odds to call after I re-raised her re-raise with only the naked Ace? I could definetely see if she had A/J of diamonds that she'd have the flush draw and top pair top kicker, but she didn't have the flush draw except for runner-runner if she gets lucky.