kamrann
09-08-2002, 01:56 PM
Okay, this has probably been discussed a fair bit before but I haven't found anything myself so I'm going to bring it up anyway.
I was playing in a tourney at UltimateBet. The buyin was tiny (1 + 0). There were 35 players.
Down to the last 15, I had a below average stack (about my starting chips) and decided I needed to get some chips soon if I wanted to win - I was only playing it for practice and to try and win, and didn't care about hanging on for about $2 or something.
A short stack a couple to my left had just gone out, and the three players to my left now all had bigger stacks than me, but not huge, so I figured they wouldn't want to call an all-in from me unless they really had something big. I was in the cutoff. There were a couple of callers to my right, so there were 3 big blinds worth in the pot (about 2/3 of my stack). I had K7o, not much but I felt it was very likely I could make the BB and two callers fold, and if I did get a caller I still had a chance anyway.
So I went all-in.
Anyway, this post isn't about whether I did the right thing. The big blind wasn't responding, obviously disconnected, and after a wait he was put all-in in the online sense - he was considered all-in for the chips he already had in the pot. As I expected the two callers folded, he had K8 and took the pot.
My question is, is this really fair? I know there are reasons for it, to protect people being disconnected in the middle of a big pot, and also that most sites have limits on the number of safe all-ins allowed. But it seems to me that even one such all-in per tournament can give a big advantage - in my example if he'd been folded I would have had more than double the number of chips I ended up with. While in this case I'm sure it wasn't intentional, theres no doubt this mechanism could be used on purpose to ones advantage.
Any thoughts on this from anyone?
Cheers
Cameron
I was playing in a tourney at UltimateBet. The buyin was tiny (1 + 0). There were 35 players.
Down to the last 15, I had a below average stack (about my starting chips) and decided I needed to get some chips soon if I wanted to win - I was only playing it for practice and to try and win, and didn't care about hanging on for about $2 or something.
A short stack a couple to my left had just gone out, and the three players to my left now all had bigger stacks than me, but not huge, so I figured they wouldn't want to call an all-in from me unless they really had something big. I was in the cutoff. There were a couple of callers to my right, so there were 3 big blinds worth in the pot (about 2/3 of my stack). I had K7o, not much but I felt it was very likely I could make the BB and two callers fold, and if I did get a caller I still had a chance anyway.
So I went all-in.
Anyway, this post isn't about whether I did the right thing. The big blind wasn't responding, obviously disconnected, and after a wait he was put all-in in the online sense - he was considered all-in for the chips he already had in the pot. As I expected the two callers folded, he had K8 and took the pot.
My question is, is this really fair? I know there are reasons for it, to protect people being disconnected in the middle of a big pot, and also that most sites have limits on the number of safe all-ins allowed. But it seems to me that even one such all-in per tournament can give a big advantage - in my example if he'd been folded I would have had more than double the number of chips I ended up with. While in this case I'm sure it wasn't intentional, theres no doubt this mechanism could be used on purpose to ones advantage.
Any thoughts on this from anyone?
Cheers
Cameron