Hold'em flop seen% and VPIP%

[mustard76]

When calculating flop seen% and VPIP%, do you normally include hands played from the blinds? How does PokerTracker calculate these stats?

Thanks in advance.

[gila]

VPIP% means you voluntarily put money in the pot. If you are the BB and it is raised, you fold, you did not VIPI. If you are BB, and it is not raised to you, you have seen the flop with out PIP; thus no VPIP. But, as the above situation, you are in the BB, no raise, and see the flop, you count in the seen flop %, just not in the VPIP%. Does that make any sense?

[mustard76]

Thanks for the helpful response. Your explanation makes perfect sense. I was thinking that you might not count when your opponents see the flop from the blinds because they could see the flop without calling a raise. In this case the flop seen% doesn't mean much. I guess this is why VP$IP% is better.

Is there a good source for information about how poker stats are calculated? Or should I just keep posting questions here?