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View Full Version : 99 flops midpair and OESD

PayTheSnucka
02-19-2005, 02:22 PM
This is my 1st hand post - not sure how I played it. Villain was 80%/0% (VP$P/PFR)

Party Poker 0.5/1 Hold'em (8 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)

Preflop: Hero is MP1 with 9/images/graemlins/spade.gif, 9/images/graemlins/diamond.gif.
<font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, MP2 calls, CO calls, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, BB calls, UTG+1 calls.

Flop: (10.50 SB) T/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, 8/images/graemlins/spade.gif, 7/images/graemlins/heart.gif <font color="#0000FF">(5 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">BB bets</font>, UTG+1 folds, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, MP2 calls, CO folds, BB calls.

Turn: (8.25 BB) K/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
BB checks, <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, MP2 folds, BB calls.

River: (10.25 BB) 4/images/graemlins/heart.gif <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
BB checks, <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, BB calls.

Final Pot: 12.25 BB
adsman
02-19-2005, 02:32 PM
I would have taken the free showdown. I think there's a reasonably good chance that villian has a T.
Redd
02-19-2005, 02:41 PM
I think this argument is valid if villain was anything less than 80% VP$IP/0%PFR. If this guy plays postflop like he plays preflop, he likely won't check-raise so you only need to have the best hand half the time to bet the riv for value. Since he plays almost any two, I think there's a good chance that he'll call a river bet with lots of losing hands.
adsman
02-19-2005, 02:51 PM
[ QUOTE ]
I think this argument is valid if villain was anything less than 80% VP$IP/0%PFR. If this guy plays postflop like he plays preflop, he likely won't check-raise so you only need to have the best hand half the time to bet the riv for value. Since he plays almost any two, I think there's a good chance that he'll call a river bet with lots of losing hands.

[/ QUOTE ]

Absolutely true. But he bet the flop. And when a completely passive player bets out at the beginning he had to have something. Passive players don't bet draws. They just call down. Maybe the K on the turn scared him. But I still think he's got a T or even two pair, (scared of the str8 perhaps.)
topspin
02-19-2005, 03:02 PM
[ QUOTE ]
he bet the flop. And when a completely passive player bets out at the beginning he had to have something.

[/ QUOTE ]

Er, where did your read on villain as a "completely passive" player come from?
Dead
02-19-2005, 05:05 PM
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
he bet the flop. And when a completely passive player bets out at the beginning he had to have something.

[/ QUOTE ]

Er, where did your read on villain as a "completely passive" player come from?

[/ QUOTE ]

He's confusing PFR% and Agg factor.

Someone can be loose-passive preflop and be a maniac postflop.
DeathDonkey
02-19-2005, 06:45 PM
Nice hand.

-DeathDonkey